UTA NURS3366 2021 October Module 9 Quiz Latest

NURS3366 Pathophysiologic Processes: Implications for Nursing

Module 9 Quiz

Question 1An elderly man develops postrenal acute kidney injury (AKI).  What is the most likely cause? 

  dehydration.

  a positive PSA.

   benign prostatic hyperplasia.

  sepsis.

Question 2Which condition predisposes a patient to developing an intrarenal acute kidney injury?

  Diabetes Mellitus.

  Hypotension.

  Uterine prolapse.

  Antibiotics.

Question 3The RN (registered nurse) is caring for a patient diagnosed with an acute kidney injury. Which laboratory values are most significant for diagnosing an acute kidney injury?

  BUN and creatinine

  Hemoglobin and RBC count.

  Potassium and sodium.

  Potassium and BUN.

 Question 4A patient is found to have hematuria, proteinuria, and an elevated serum creatinine. These findings indicate                                                                                

  prerenal acute kidney injury

  acute tubular necrosis

  postrenal chronic kidney injury

  glomerulonephritis

 Question 5A patient is admitted with heart failure. Over a 30-hour period the patient develops oliguria.  His serum creatinine (SrCr) is measured at 1.4; the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is measured at 34.   What type of problem is most likely?    

BUN (blood urea nitrogen):  8 to 25

Serum creatinine (SrCr):  0.6 to 1.2

  prerenal acute kidney injury

  acute tubular necrosis

  postrenal chronic kidney injury

  glomerulonephritis

 Question 6A patient is admitted with heart failure. Over a 30-hour period the patient develops oliguria and is diagnosed with AKI (acute kidney injury). Which assessment finding is expected in this patient? 

Urine specific gravity:  1.002 to 1.028.

   poor skin turgor.

  urine specific gravity of 1.000.

  urine specific gravity of 1.028.

   hypovolemia.

 Question 7A nurse taking care of a patient diagnosed with heart failure and prerenal AKI (acute kidney injury) notes that “casts” are now present on the patient’s urinalysis report. Which statement best describes the pathophysiologic rational for casts in this patient?

  As kidney tubular cells die, they slough off into the urinary tubules then are reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries, causing arterial blockages called casts.

  Elevated levels of blood urea nitrogen cause the formation of crystals within the kidney tubular cells. These crystals are known as casts.

  Casts are evidence of dead kidney tubular cells as a result of the low cardiac output and prolonged ischemia from the heart failure problem.

  Oliguria has caused fluid volume overload. With a fluid volume overload, more pressure is exerted on Bowman’s capsule, causing the formation of casts.

 Question 8Drugs that ___________should not be used in chronic renal failure (CKD).

  enhance potassium secretion in the distal collecting tubule (DCT)

  enhance potassium reabsorption in the DCT

  decrease pruritis.

  enhance diuresis.

 Question 9A patient, diagnosed with CKD (chronic kidney disease) has hyperkalemia. Identify the pathophysiologic reason for this abnormality.

  Decreased levels of aldosterone cause increased retention of potassium (K+).

  With CKD, aldosterone pathologically increases K+ excretion into the kidney tubule.

  Increased diuresis has caused the loss of K+.

  Oliguria and a pathological response to aldosterone, cause K+ retention.

 Question 10A patient, diagnosed with CKD (chronic kidney disease) has hyperkalemia. The RN (registered nurse) immediately reports the value to the HCP (healthcare provider) because hyperkalemia can cause_________

  itching from an abnormal deposition on the skin.

  decreased mentation or altered level of consciousness.

  hyperpolarization of the resting membrane potential and bradycardia.

  hypopolarization of the resting membrane potential and tachycardia.

 Question 11A patient, diagnosed with chronic kidney disease, is found to have an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level. Which dietary modification will help manage this problem?

  Reduce their fluid intake.

  Reduce their protein intake.

  Reduce their sodium intake.

  Reduce their phosphate intake.

 Question 12A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease sustains a stress fracture of the vertebra. Her increased risk of this kind of event is most likely due to                                            

  dehydration from postrenal AKI.

  osteoporosis from decreased activation of vitamin D.

  osteoporosis from decreased phosphate.

  anemia due to lack of erythropoietin.

 Question 13A patient, diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD), is experiencing an acid base imbalance. Which statement best describes the pathophysiologic rationale for an acid base imbalance in this patient?

  There is an increased excretion of phosphates into the urine by the kidney.

  There is decreased production of bicarbonate by the kidney.

  The pathologically increased GFR causes the retention of hydrogen ions, causing acidosis.

  Uremia from an elevated blood urea nitrogen will cause vomiting and a gain of acid.

 Question 14A patient, diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD), has received one dose of erythropoietin (epo).  Which complaint, by the patient, indicates another dose of epo is needed?

  Complaints of muscle aches and fever.

  Complaints of shortness of breath and fatigue.

  Reports of blood pressure elevations.

  Reports of nausea and a white “frosty” look to their skin.

 Question 15The nurse taking care of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) identifies peripheral edema and hears crackles upon auscultation of the lung sounds. Which intervention should be included in the nurse’s plan of care?

  Administer a large volume of a hypotonic IV solution.

  Offer a high-sodium, low-calcium diet to the patient.

  Hold (do not give) the patient’s prescribed blood pressure medication.

  Administer the patient’s prescribed diuretic medication.

 Question 16The parents of a 12-year-old boy who is having surgery to remove a testis that didn’t descend before birth asks the nurse why the surgery is necessary since his other testis is fine and in the scrotal sac.  The nurse’s explanation is based on the understanding that ___________                                         

  the retained testis can lead to a urinary obstruction later in life.

  the retained testis can lead to a cancerous condition called cryptorchidism.

  cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular cancer.

  having both testes in the scrotal sac is of acute life-threatening importance.

 Question 17Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess for a patient diagnosed with a ureteral lithiasis?

  Hematuria, flank pain that comes and goes in spasms.

  Testicular heaviness and an elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA).

  Delay in starting urine flow and decrease in the amount of urine flow.

  None. The patient will be asymptomatic.

 Question 18A 32-year-old woman presents to her nurse practitioner (NP) with vague complaints of bloating, constipation, and diffuse pelvic pain. What should the NP suspect?  

  Endometriosis.

  Ovarian cancer.

  Herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV2)

  Dysmenorrhea.

 Question 19A woman presents to the Emergency department (ED) with complaints of dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea and cyclical pelvic pain. Which option most accurately matches these S&S?

  The cyclical pain is probably related to the proliferation of the menstrual hormones.

  Retrograde menstruation has resulted in functioning endometrium outside the uterus; causing inflammatory pain.  

  A sexually transmitted infection (STI) has caused bilateral salpingo-oopheritis.

  Endometriosis has caused ectopic areas of cancerous tissue to form in the abdomen; causing inflammatory pain.

 Question 20Which clinical manifestations support, to the nurse, the patient’s diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

  Urgency with “dribbling” flow.

  Scrotal pain with movement.

  Urinary frequency.

  Fever and pyuria. 

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